Segment 7: MCQs on the Information Technology Act, 2000
121. Which section of the IT Act provides for the appointment of a Controller of Certifying Authorities? a) Section 17 b) Section 18 c) Section 19 d) Section 20
Answer: a) Section 17 Explanation: Section 17 provides for the appointment of a Controller of Certifying Authorities to regulate the working of Certifying Authorities in issuing digital signature certificates.
122. Which section defines “critical information infrastructure”? a) Section 70 b) Section 66F c) Section 43A d) Section 69A
Answer: a) Section 70 Explanation: Section 70 defines critical information infrastructure as computer resources whose protection is essential for national security, defense, and economy.
123. Under which section can a penalty be imposed for tampering with computer source documents? a) Section 65 b) Section 66 c) Section 43 d) Section 67
Answer: a) Section 65 Explanation: Section 65 imposes penalties for knowingly or intentionally altering, destroying, or concealing computer source code required to be maintained by law.
124. What is the maximum punishment under Section 67B for publishing child pornographic content? a) 5 years imprisonment and ₹10 lakh fine b) 7 years imprisonment and ₹10 lakh fine c) 3 years imprisonment and ₹5 lakh fine d) Life imprisonment
Answer: b) 7 years imprisonment and ₹10 lakh fine Explanation: Section 67B prohibits the publication or transmission of child pornographic content electronically, prescribing severe penalties for violations.
125. Which section empowers adjudicating officers to impose penalties for unauthorized access to computer systems? a) Section 46 b) Section 43 c) Section 66 d) Section 48
Answer: b) Section 43 Explanation: Section 43 authorizes adjudicating officers to impose penalties for unauthorized access, data theft, and related cyber offenses.
126. What is the primary focus of Section 4 of the IT Act? a) Legal recognition of electronic records b) Regulation of digital signatures c) Blocking access to offensive content d) Establishment of cyber tribunals
Answer: a) Legal recognition of electronic records Explanation: Section 4 provides that electronic records are legally recognized, equivalent to paper-based documents, if created in accordance with the law.
127. Which section prescribes imprisonment for identity theft? a) Section 66C b) Section 66E c) Section 65 d) Section 67
Answer: a) Section 66C Explanation: Section 66C penalizes identity theft, prescribing imprisonment up to 3 years and a fine up to ₹1 lakh for the fraudulent use of others’ identity credentials.
128. What is the maximum punishment under Section 66F for committing cyber terrorism? a) Life imprisonment b) 10 years imprisonment c) 7 years imprisonment d) 5 years imprisonment
Answer: a) Life imprisonment Explanation: Section 66F prescribes life imprisonment for acts of cyber terrorism that threaten national security, sovereignty, or public order.
129. Under which section is the confidentiality of information obtained during the exercise of powers under the IT Act protected? a) Section 72 b) Section 70 c) Section 69 d) Section 66C
Answer: a) Section 72 Explanation: Section 72 protects the confidentiality of information obtained under the IT Act, penalizing unauthorized disclosure of such information.
130. Which section deals with the legal recognition of electronic signatures? a) Section 3A b) Section 6 c) Section 10A d) Section 2(1)(p)
Answer: a) Section 3A Explanation: Section 3A provides for the legal recognition of electronic signatures as valid authentication methods for electronic records.
131. Which section imposes penalties for hacking? a) Section 66 b) Section 65 c) Section 67A d) Section 72A
Answer: a) Section 79 Explanation: Section 79 provides conditional immunity to intermediaries from liability for third-party content, provided they adhere to due diligence guidelines.
133. What is the primary focus of Section 67C? a) Retention of information by intermediaries b) Prohibition of child pornography c) Monitoring encrypted communication d) Protecting critical information infrastructure
Answer: a) Retention of information by intermediaries Explanation: Section 67C mandates intermediaries to retain and preserve information for a specified period as prescribed by the government.
134. Which section defines the term “cyber cafe”? a) Section 2(1)(na) b) Section 2(1)(ja) c) Section 67B d) Section 43A
Answer: a) Section 2(1)(na) Explanation: Section 2(1)(na) defines “cyber cafe” as a facility offering internet access to the public, including any cyber-related services.
135. Under which section can the government regulate encryption practices? a) Section 84A b) Section 69 c) Section 43 d) Section 66F
Answer: a) Section 84A Explanation: Section 84A empowers the government to prescribe encryption methods to ensure the security of electronic communications.
136. Which section deals with penalties for phishing and online fraud? a) Section 66D b) Section 66C c) Section 43A d) Section 72A
Answer: a) Section 66D Explanation: Section 66D penalizes cheating by personation using computer resources, addressing phishing and online fraud activities.
137. What is the punishment for publishing obscene material electronically under Section 67? a) Imprisonment up to 3 years and fine up to ₹5 lakh b) Imprisonment up to 5 years and fine up to ₹10 lakh c) Imprisonment up to 2 years and fine up to ₹1 lakh d) Imprisonment up to 7 years and fine up to ₹10 lakh
Answer: a) Imprisonment up to 3 years and fine up to ₹5 lakh Explanation: Section 67 prescribes punishment for publishing or transmitting obscene material electronically, with increasing penalties for repeat offenses.
138. Which section empowers the government to direct monitoring of digital transactions? a) Section 69 b) Section 43A c) Section 66F d) Section 72
Answer: a) Section 69 Explanation: Section 69 allows the government to monitor, intercept, or decrypt digital communications for security or public order purposes.
139. What is the key provision of Section 43A regarding sensitive personal data? a) Reasonable security practices must be followed by corporate entities b) Government monitoring of personal data c) Mandatory encryption for data storage d) Retention of sensitive data for 10 years
Answer: a) Reasonable security practices must be followed by corporate entities Explanation: Section 43A mandates that corporate entities protect sensitive personal data by implementing reasonable security practices.
140. Which section defines “digital signature certificate”? a) Section 2(1)(q) b) Section 17 c) Section 3 d) Section 48
Answer: a) Section 2(1)(q) Explanation: Section 2(1)(q) defines “digital signature certificate” as a certificate issued by a Certifying Authority certifying the ownership of a digital signature.
