Segment 10: MCQs on the Information Technology Act, 2000
181. Which section of the IT Act mandates intermediaries to remove unlawful content upon receiving notice? a) Section 79 b) Section 69A c) Section 67C d) Section 43
Answer: a) Section 79 Explanation: Section 79 provides conditional immunity to intermediaries and mandates them to act expeditiously to remove or disable access to unlawful content upon receiving notice.
182. Under which section can the government designate specific entities as “critical information infrastructure”? a) Section 70 b) Section 66F c) Section 69 d) Section 43A
Answer: a) Section 70 Explanation: Section 70 enables the government to declare certain computer resources as critical information infrastructure, which requires enhanced protection.
183. Which section prohibits publishing information that can harm minors? a) Section 67B b) Section 67A c) Section 66E d) Section 70
Answer: a) Section 67B Explanation: Section 67B prohibits publishing, transmitting, or accessing material that sexually exploits children, prescribing stringent punishments.
184. Which section provides for the regulation of digital signatures? a) Section 3 b) Section 4 c) Section 6 d) Section 10A
Answer: a) Section 3 Explanation: Section 3 regulates the use of digital signatures for authentication of electronic records, defining how they are created and verified.
185. What is the purpose of Section 72 in the IT Act? a) Breach of confidentiality and privacy b) Cyber terrorism c) Data protection guidelines d) Legal recognition of electronic contracts
Answer: a) Breach of confidentiality and privacy Explanation: Section 72 penalizes unauthorized disclosure of information obtained during the course of exercising powers under the IT Act.
186. What does Section 10A ensure? a) Validity of electronic contracts b) Protection of digital signatures c) Regulation of e-commerce d) Establishment of Cyber Appellate Tribunal
Answer: a) Validity of electronic contracts Explanation: Section 10A ensures that contracts formed through electronic means are legally valid and enforceable under Indian law.
187. Which section provides immunity to intermediaries for third-party content? a) Section 79 b) Section 43A c) Section 72A d) Section 66C
Answer: a) Section 79 Explanation: Section 79 grants intermediaries immunity from liability for third-party content if they exercise due diligence and comply with the law.
188. What is the penalty for publishing false digital signatures under Section 71? a) Imprisonment up to 2 years and fine up to ₹1 lakh b) Imprisonment up to 3 years and fine up to ₹2 lakh c) Imprisonment up to 5 years and fine up to ₹5 lakh d) Life imprisonment
Answer: a) Imprisonment up to 2 years and fine up to ₹1 lakh Explanation: Section 71 penalizes making false or misleading representations to obtain a digital signature certificate.
189. Which section of the IT Act deals with hacking? a) Section 66 b) Section 43 c) Section 70 d) Section 65
Answer: a) Section 65 Explanation: Section 65 penalizes tampering with or altering computer source code with imprisonment or fine, or both.
191. What does Section 43 penalize? a) Unauthorized access to computer systems b) Cyber terrorism c) Publishing obscene content d) Legal recognition of electronic records
Answer: a) Unauthorized access to computer systems Explanation: Section 43 imposes penalties for accessing computer systems without authorization and causing damage or disruption.
192. What is the penalty for sending offensive messages electronically under Section 66A? a) Imprisonment up to 3 years and fine b) Imprisonment up to 5 years and fine c) Imprisonment up to 2 years and fine d) Life imprisonment
Answer: a) Imprisonment up to 3 years and fine Explanation: Although Section 66A prescribed these penalties, it was struck down by the Supreme Court in Shreya Singhal v. Union of India (2015).
193. Which section mandates intermediaries to retain electronic records? a) Section 67C b) Section 79 c) Section 43 d) Section 69
Answer: a) Section 67C Explanation: Section 67C requires intermediaries to preserve and retain specified electronic records for the period mandated by the government.
194. Under which section can the government monitor and decrypt communications? a) Section 69 b) Section 43A c) Section 66F d) Section 70
Answer: a) Section 69 Explanation: Section 69 empowers the government to monitor, intercept, or decrypt communications for national security, sovereignty, or public order.
195. Which Supreme Court case is related to the validity of electronic evidence? a) Anvar P.V. v. P.K. Basheer b) Shreya Singhal v. Union of India c) Puttaswamy v. Union of India d) Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan
Answer: a) Anvar P.V. v. P.K. Basheer Explanation: In Anvar P.V. v. P.K. Basheer (2014), the Supreme Court emphasized compliance with Section 65B of the Evidence Act for admissibility of electronic evidence.
196. What is the punishment for cyber terrorism under Section 66F? a) Life imprisonment b) Imprisonment up to 10 years c) Imprisonment up to 7 years d) Imprisonment up to 5 years
Answer: a) Life imprisonment Explanation: Section 66F prescribes life imprisonment for acts of cyber terrorism, which pose threats to national security and sovereignty.
197. Which section regulates the use of encryption methods? a) Section 84A b) Section 70B c) Section 43A d) Section 67
Answer: a) Section 3 Explanation: Section 3 recognizes digital signatures as valid authentication tools for electronic records.
200. What is the role of CERT-In as per Section 70B? a) Handle cybersecurity incidents b) Protect critical infrastructure c) Monitor encrypted communication d) Penalize intermediaries
Answer: a) Handle cybersecurity incidents Explanation: Section 70B establishes CERT-In as the national agency responsible for handling cybersecurity incidents and threats.
