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MCQ on Sale of Goods Act 1930

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Here are 25 more multiple-choice questions (126–150) on the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, with answers and explanations:


  1. Which of the following is an “implied warranty” under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930?

a) Warranty of quiet possession
b) Warranty of merchantable quality
c) Warranty of fitness for a particular purpose
d) Warranty of description
Answer: a) Warranty of quiet possession
Explanation: Section 14(b) states that there is an implied warranty that the buyer shall have and enjoy quiet possession of the goods.


  1. A condition can be waived by:

a) The seller only
b) The buyer only
c) Both buyer and seller
d) Either buyer or seller
Answer: b) The buyer only
Explanation: Section 13 allows the buyer to waive a condition or elect to treat a breach of condition as a breach of warranty.


  1. Which of the following is NOT an essential element of a contract of sale?

a) Transfer of property in goods
b) Payment of price in money
c) Delivery of goods
d) Agreement between buyer and seller
Answer: c) Delivery of goods
Explanation: Delivery is not essential for the formation of a contract of sale; it is part of performance.


  1. Which of the following contracts is void?

a) Sale of stolen goods
b) Sale of future goods
c) Sale of goods by description
d) Sale by auction
Answer: a) Sale of stolen goods
Explanation: Sale of stolen goods is void as the seller does not have the right to sell the goods (Section 27).


  1. The term “mercantile agent” is defined in:

a) Section 2(8)
b) Section 2(9)
c) Section 2(10)
d) Section 2(11)
Answer: b) Section 2(9)
Explanation: A mercantile agent is defined as an agent with authority to sell, consign, or deal with goods.


  1. When the buyer refuses to pay the price, the seller can:

a) File a suit for damages only
b) File a suit for price only
c) File a suit for price or damages
d) Do nothing
Answer: c) File a suit for price or damages
Explanation: Section 55 allows the seller to recover the price, and Section 56 allows a claim for damages.


  1. The term “document of title to goods” includes:

a) Bill of lading
b) Warehouse receipt
c) Railway receipt
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
Explanation: Section 2(4) includes these documents as evidence of title to goods.


  1. The principle of caveat emptor means:

a) Buyer beware
b) Seller beware
c) Both buyer and seller beware
d) None of the above
Answer: a) Buyer beware
Explanation: The principle caveat emptor implies that the buyer must ensure the suitability of goods purchased.


  1. Which of the following is NOT covered by “goods” under the Sale of Goods Act?

a) Gas
b) Electricity
c) Immovable property
d) Crops
Answer: c) Immovable property
Explanation: The Act applies only to movable goods (Section 2(7)).


  1. If the seller is not the owner of goods but has possession of them, he may validly sell them if:

a) He has the consent of the owner
b) He is a mercantile agent acting within his authority
c) The buyer purchases in good faith
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
Explanation: Sections 27 to 30 provide exceptions to the rule that only the owner can sell goods.


  1. The sale of unascertained goods becomes a sale when:

a) The goods are manufactured
b) The goods are appropriated to the contract
c) The goods are delivered
d) The payment is made
Answer: b) The goods are appropriated to the contract
Explanation: As per Section 23, unascertained goods must be appropriated for the sale to become valid.


  1. The seller’s lien on goods ends when:

a) The goods are delivered to the carrier
b) The buyer takes possession of the goods
c) The buyer resells the goods
d) The goods are destroyed
Answer: b) The buyer takes possession of the goods
Explanation: Under Section 49, lien ends when the buyer takes possession.


  1. The Sale of Goods Act, 1930, is based on:

a) English Sale of Goods Act, 1893
b) Indian Contract Act, 1872
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of the above
Answer: c) Both a) and b)
Explanation: The Act is derived from the English Sale of Goods Act and evolved from the Contract Act.


  1. Which of the following is a “contingent contract” under the Act?

a) Sale of specific goods
b) Sale of unascertained goods
c) Sale of goods subject to a condition precedent
d) Sale of defective goods
Answer: c) Sale of goods subject to a condition precedent
Explanation: A contract dependent on a future uncertain event is contingent under Section 31 of the Contract Act.


  1. If the buyer rejects goods without valid reason, the seller can:

a) Sue for damages for non-acceptance
b) Resell the goods
c) Retain the goods
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
Explanation: Sections 56 and 54 provide these remedies to the seller.


  1. A sale by sample is governed by:

a) Section 17
b) Section 18
c) Section 19
d) Section 20
Answer: a) Section 17
Explanation: Section 17 deals with sales by sample.


  1. If the price is not fixed in a contract of sale, it will be determined by:

a) The seller
b) The buyer
c) Market price
d) The court
Answer: c) Market price
Explanation: Section 9 provides that a reasonable price, often determined by market value, will apply.


  1. The doctrine of caveat venditor applies when:

a) The buyer relies on the seller’s skill and judgment
b) The seller fails to disclose defects
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of the above
Answer: c) Both a) and b)
Explanation: This doctrine places responsibility on the seller in specific cases under Section 16.


  1. Who bears the risk if goods are destroyed before the property passes?

a) Buyer
b) Seller
c) Carrier
d) Both buyer and seller equally
Answer: b) Seller
Explanation: Risk remains with the seller until property passes to the buyer (Section 26).


  1. The contract of sale is void if:

a) The goods are destroyed at the time of the contract
b) The price is not fixed
c) The buyer is a minor
d) None of the above
Answer: a) The goods are destroyed at the time of the contract
Explanation: Section 6 states that the contract is void if specific goods are destroyed at the time of the agreement.


  1. If goods are sold by auction, the property passes:

a) Immediately
b) When payment is made
c) When the hammer falls
d) When the goods are delivered
Answer: c) When the hammer falls
Explanation: Property passes when the auctioneer accepts the highest bid (Section 64).


  1. Goods are in transit until:

a) The buyer takes possession of the goods
b) The goods reach the carrier
c) Payment is made
d) The seller retains the goods
Answer: a) The buyer takes possession of the goods
Explanation: As per Section 51, goods are considered in transit until the buyer takes delivery.


  1. The buyer is deemed to have accepted the goods when:

a) He communicates his acceptance
b) He does not reject them within a reasonable time
c) He uses or resells the goods
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
Explanation: Section 42 outlines the conditions under which acceptance is deemed.


  1. Which of the following terms is NOT defined in the Sale of Goods Act, 1930?

a) Seller
b) Buyer
c) Price
d) Delivery
Answer: c) Price
Explanation: Although price is a vital concept, it is not separately defined in the Act.


  1. A buyer has the right to demand delivery of goods if:

a) He has paid the price
b) The goods are ascertained
c) The property has passed
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
Explanation: The buyer’s right to demand delivery depends on payment, ascertainment, and property transfer.


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