Segment 8: MCQs (121–140)
121. What is the primary purpose of contempt of court laws?
a) To punish offenders
b) To maintain the authority and dignity of the judiciary
c) To regulate lawyers’ conduct
d) To protect the executive branch
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Answer: b) To maintain the authority and dignity of the judiciary
Explanation: The primary objective of contempt of court laws, as per the Contempt of Court Act, 1971, is to ensure that the judiciary is not undermined, and its functioning is protected.
122. Which of the following is not an example of criminal contempt?
a) Publishing material that prejudices ongoing proceedings
b) Disobeying a court order
c) Scandalizing the judiciary
d) Obstructing court functioning
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Answer: b) Disobeying a court order
Explanation: Disobeying a court order is considered civil contempt under Section 2(b), whereas acts like scandalizing the court fall under criminal contempt as per Section 2(c).
123. What does Section 15 of the Contempt of Court Act, 1971, deal with?
a) Limitation period for contempt cases
b) Definition of contempt
c) Procedure for initiating contempt proceedings
d) Power to punish for contempt
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Answer: c) Procedure for initiating contempt proceedings
Explanation: Section 15 specifies the procedure for initiating contempt proceedings, including cases brought by private individuals, with the consent of the Advocate General or Attorney General.
124. In Delhi Judicial Service Association v. State of Gujarat, what issue was addressed?
a) Scandalizing the judiciary
b) Rights of subordinate courts
c) Misconduct by police against judicial officers
d) Limitation for contempt
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Answer: c) Misconduct by police against judicial officers
Explanation: The Supreme Court addressed the improper arrest of a judicial officer and ruled on the protection of the judiciary from executive overreach.
125. Under the Contempt of Court Act, truth can be used as a defense if it is:
a) Submitted with court approval
b) In the public interest and made in good faith
c) Verified by the Advocate General
d) Filed with a supporting affidavit
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Answer: b) In the public interest and made in good faith
Explanation: Section 13 provides that truth can be a valid defense only when it serves the public interest and is made in good faith.
126. Which section grants the High Courts the power to punish for contempt of subordinate courts?
a) Section 8
b) Section 10
c) Section 12
d) Section 14
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Answer: b) Section 10
Explanation: Section 10 empowers High Courts to punish for contempt of subordinate courts to ensure their dignity and functioning.
127. What was the landmark principle in C.K. Daphtary v. O.P. Gupta?
a) Civil contempt definition
b) Limitation on contempt cases
c) Scandalizing the court as contempt
d) Protection of fair criticism
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Answer: c) Scandalizing the court as contempt
Explanation: The court emphasized that acts of scandalizing the judiciary diminish public confidence in the justice system and amount to contempt.
128. What is the punishment for contempt under Section 12 of the Act?
a) Imprisonment up to 3 months
b) Fine of ₹2,000 or imprisonment up to 6 months
c) Imprisonment up to 1 year or fine of ₹5,000
d) No prescribed punishment
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Answer: b) Fine of ₹2,000 or imprisonment up to 6 months
Explanation: Section 12 prescribes imprisonment up to six months, a fine of ₹2,000, or both, as the maximum punishment for contempt.
129. Which case highlighted that an apology must not be conditional in contempt matters?
a) Re: Vinay Chandra Mishra
b) S. Mulgaokar v. Unknown
c) Baradakanta Mishra v. Registrar of Orissa High Court
d) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
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Answer: c) Baradakanta Mishra v. Registrar of Orissa High Court
Explanation: The court held that apologies must be unconditional and genuine to act as a defense in contempt proceedings.
130. Which section of the Act protects statements made in good faith regarding pending cases?
a) Section 3
b) Section 4
c) Section 5
d) Section 6
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Answer: c) Section 5
Explanation: Section 5 protects fair comments made in good faith regarding the merits of any case which has been finally decided.
131. Who provides consent for initiating criminal contempt in the Supreme Court?
a) Advocate General
b) Chief Justice
c) Attorney General
d) President of India
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Answer: c) Attorney General
Explanation: Section 15 mandates the Attorney General’s consent for initiating criminal contempt in the Supreme Court.
132. What is required for private individuals to initiate contempt proceedings?
a) Permission from the court
b) Consent of Advocate General or Attorney General
c) Filing an affidavit
d) Approval from a magistrate
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Answer: b) Consent of Advocate General or Attorney General
Explanation: Section 15 specifies that private individuals require prior consent from the Advocate General or Attorney General to initiate contempt proceedings.
133. Which landmark case addressed media trials and their impact on the judiciary?
a) Sahara India Real Estate v. SEBI
b) In Re: Arundhati Roy
c) Ashok Kumar v. Radha Swami Satsang Sabha
d) S. Mulgaokar v. Unknown
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Answer: a) Sahara India Real Estate v. SEBI
Explanation: The Supreme Court examined the prejudicial effects of media trials and emphasized the need to balance freedom of the press with the judiciary’s functioning.
134. What type of contempt is disobedience of a court order?
a) Civil contempt
b) Criminal contempt
c) Both civil and criminal contempt
d) Administrative contempt
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Answer: a) Civil contempt
Explanation: Section 2(b) defines civil contempt as the willful disobedience of a court order, decree, or direction.
135. What was the primary issue in Re: Vinay Chandra Mishra?
a) Scandalizing the judiciary
b) Assault on a judge
c) Apology for contempt
d) Freedom of speech
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Answer: b) Assault on a judge
Explanation: The case dealt with physical assault on a judge, and the Supreme Court invoked its inherent powers to ensure the protection of judicial officers.
136. Which section allows High Courts to frame rules for contempt cases?
a) Section 20
b) Section 21
c) Section 23
d) Section 24
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Answer: c) Section 23
Explanation: Section 23 empowers the High Courts and Supreme Court to frame rules for the regulation of their contempt proceedings.
137. What is the nature of contempt committed in the courtroom during proceedings?
a) Direct contempt
b) Indirect contempt
c) Civil contempt
d) Administrative contempt
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Answer: a) Direct contempt
Explanation: Contempt committed in the face of the court is categorized as direct contempt and is addressed under Section 14.
138. What does Section 8 of the Act clarify?
a) Limitation for contempt cases
b) Applicability of other laws
c) Punishment for contempt
d) Powers of subordinate courts
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Answer: b) Applicability of other laws
Explanation: Section 8 ensures that the Act does not derogate from other laws relating to contempt.
139. In S. Mulgaokar v. Unknown, what did the court suggest for handling contempt cases?
a) Use restraint and avoid overreach
b) Punish all acts of criticism
c) Always demand an unconditional apology
d) Allow media freedom without limits
Show Answer
Answer: a) Use restraint and avoid overreach
Explanation: The court emphasized that judicial restraint should be exercised in contempt cases to uphold the judiciary’s dignity without stifling criticism.
140. Who has the authority to pardon a person convicted of contempt?
a) High Court
b) Supreme Court
c) President or Governor under constitutional powers
d) Parliament
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Answer: c) President or Governor under constitutional powers
Explanation: Constitutional powers under Articles 72 and 161 allow the President or Governor to grant pardons for contempt convictions.